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Cap benefits from deductions at a percent of deductible expenses #867
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…ductions at some percent of total deductible expenses
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28% cap, exempting charitable contributions, in 2020: This PR: $7.8 B I think the reason for the difference is that TPC includes many exclusions in the cap. Here is their description:
Here is the only news article I can find that doesn't just reference the TPC study
The Treasury Department Green Book (153-154) contains a proposal that is more similar to what TPC analyzed than what the journalist described:
It looks like I need to go back and add some more options to be included under the cap in this PR. I plan to also make more options available for the ID_BenefitSurtax, and I will try to do so without breaking existing functionality. |
This isn't working right yet. When I add charitable contributions back to the cap, the score goes down. |
From the CBO Budget Options, Option 53, page 33: |
I'd appreciate feedback on this PR now. In 2020, a 28% cap on all itemized deductions raises $5.3 billion. Interestingly, if we exclude state and local taxes from the cap, it raises $9.04 billion. More on this below. The best comparison is CBO, since they analyze this provision alone. (see #867 (comment)). They get $15B in 2020. As an interesting side note, this relationship is reversed when we compare TC and CBO for limiting the value of itemized deductions to 6% of adjusted gross income, which I model with an itemized deduction benefit surtax with a 6% credit rate and 100% rate. For this analysis, TC gets $27 billion in 2020 and CBO gets only $7 billion. Now let's return to the odd behavior where we exclude an itemized deduction from the cap to find that the revenue raised from the cap goes up. After some experimentation, I have identified at least two reasons for this: First, some taxpayers have fully reduced their tax liability through itemized deductions. When we add more itemized deductions to the cap, the deductible expenses go up (meaning a higher cap) but the value of the benefit remains unchanged (meaning fewer excess benefits.) Second, some taxpayers are in the itemized deduction phaseout range, and again, adding more itemized deductions to the cap means that the cap increases faster than the benefit. When I only apply the cap to taxpayers with positive Given all of the odd behavior with this feature, I would greatly appreciate others' review, feedback, and suggestions. |
@MattHJensen, I'm not in the office on Friday morning, but will look at PR#867 this afternoon. |
On Fri, 23 Sep 2016, Matt Jensen wrote:
I don't see way to specify a cap on the taxbrain web page. Also, I am not
The first place I would look would be at the treatment of AMT. Is this Also, I do not understand why the default surtax rate is shown as 1.0 (and
I can't comment on this till I know what the definition of the cap is.
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@MattHJensen, I think the questions raised by Dan @feenberg are all relevant. Also, I would like to see the reform dictionary that you use to simulate such a reform. Dan's question about where in the sequence of the tax-calculating logic this reform comes in is particularly relevant. Here is some relevant code you've added:
The first statement goes right to one of Dan's questions: "28% of what?" Another issue is that any constraint on allowed itemized deductions in your formulation of the logic does not feed back into AMT calculations. Is that really how these reform proposals are specified? Or do you need to do this constraining of allowed itemized deductions earlier in the tax-calculating logic sequence. Why not just apply the 28% limitation in the ItemDed function? |
The reform being analyzed in pull request #867 is described by CBO (Option 53 on page 33) as:
A limitation rate of 28% is identical to a haircut of 0.72. If this statement is correct, then a couple of things logically follow: Am I missing something here? If not, Tax-Calculator can already simulate these kind of itemized-deduction limitation reforms, and do it in a way that correctly simulates the AMT interactions. There are many haircut policy parameters, but only the ones related to itemized deductions need to be used to implement the 28% limitation reform being discussed here.
@MattHJensen @feenberg @Amy-Xu @GoFroggyRun @andersonfrailey |
@martinholmer and @feenberg, let me try to explain better what I am trying to accomplish:
@martinholmer, based on the method in step 1, I believe this approach does properly take into account interactions with AMT. Also, these reforms are designed to make it so that taxpayers in high tax brackets do not get more value from itemized deductions than taxpayers in lower tax brackets. Therefore, I do not believe that modeling a limitation rate of 28% as a haircut of 0.72 is correct. That would reduce itemized deductions for taxpayers in every tax bracket. It would also not take into account differences in the value that taxpayers can actually derive from itemized deductions. |
@feenberg and @martinholmer, here's a summary: Goal: Cap the value to the taxpayer of itemized deductions at X% of total deductible expenses. Method for calculating "value to the taxpayer": Run one calculator all the way through with itemized deductions turned off via haircuts. Run another calculator all the way through with itemized deductions unchanged. Compare the difference in individual income tax liability. Comments:
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@MattHJensen said:
But, as far as I can see, the code in pull request #867 applies the 28% limitation to all taxpayers. Am I wrong? If so, where is the code that applies the 28% limitation to only those with high incomes? So, I continue to think #867 is completely unnecessary to simulate the current 28% limitation reform proposals. Is the following description from 2013 incorrect?
Above quote is from this 2013 document. |
@martinholmer, the 28% limitation, as I have intended to model it, would primarily apply to individuals in the 33%, 35%, and 39.6% brackets -- in particular, it would apply when the effective tax rate on deductible expenses is greater than 28%. It might affect a few taxpayers who have effective rates on itemized deductions that are higher than their statutory marginal rate. As the snippet from CTJ indicates, if we want to allow users to limit who is affected, we could also add an AGI threshold, but I figure we can ignore that for now. TPC has the same interpretation of the provision as what I have described above (page 12):
Similarly, this WSJ says this about the proposal:
I don't think we can model such a new "minimum tax on selected preferences" with existing code (although it does share some characteristics with the surtax on itemized deduction benefits); in particular, it isn't equivalent to cutting 28% off the top of all deductible expenses. |
@MattHJensen said:
OK, when it is explained that way, what you are doing makes more sense. So, we're back to the question of why you can't get a revenue estimate similar to what they get. Is that because you're not subjecting the income exclusions to the 28% limitation? In the quote from the TPC above, it seem clear that they are computing "benefits" to be limited as itemized-deduction benefits plus excluded-income benefits. But pull request #867 seems to limit only itemized deduction expenses. Is that true? Or have I missed something else? Also, now that I've read what several other organizations say about this kind of reform proposal, I think your new |
@MattHJensen, When computing |
@martinholmer said:
Yes, that is true. We should not be matching TPC's estimate right now for that reason. I am planning on adding a few excluded income benefits in a follow on PR, but many of the benefits that TPC includes we don't currently model, such as the exclusion for employer provided health insurance. The ones I will add are non-taxable social security benefits and tax-exempt bond interest. While we shouldn't get close to TPC's number, I would expect us to be closer to CBO's. The difference w.r.t CBO is my main source of concern for this PR. @martinholmer said:
Yes, that is a good suggestion. I will add a commit with that change. @martinholmer said:
I don't think so. The effect of the itemized deduction phaseout is captured by |
This is the correct general approach. I have no idea if other modelers use dan On Sat, 24 Sep 2016, Matt Jensen wrote:
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On Sat, 24 Sep 2016, Martin Holmer wrote:
There is a thread in the tax literature about the injustice of high dan |
In response, @MattHJensen said:
I definitely agree that the But what I'm asking about is whether or not the
Yes, in the second statement above, when Isn't that the problem you're having with the comparative revenue estimates? The Tax-Calculator estimate is lower than CBO's as follows:
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master
@martinholmer said:
Thanks for the clarification, @martinholmer. I understand what you are recommending now, but I find it very difficult to interpret "Limit the value of itemized deductions to 28% of their total value" to mean "Limit the value of itemized deductions to 28% of their value after that value has already been reduced by the Pease limitation". It would be difficult, I think, to explain the latter interpretation to users; it is difficult to justify on policy grounds, and it would also require substantial surgery in |
@martinholmer inspired me to read more closely about how CBO is treating the Pease limitation in their 28% limitation experiment. Here is what they say (pg 33):
This indicates to me that CBO includes Pease repeal in the baseline when they estimate the value of the 28% limitation. With Pease repeal in the baseline, TC calculates that a 28% limitation on itemized deductions would raise $15.4 billion in 2020. CBO estimates it would raise $15 billion in 2020. My recommendation is that we merge this PR as is, unless others have additional feedback. @martinholmer, what do you think? |
@MattHJensen said:
That's much better. I guess this shows that one of the hardest things involved in comparing reform estimates is understanding exactly what reform is being estimated by the other organization. |
Thanks a lot @martinholmer and @feenberg for your review and suggestions! |
On Mon, 3 Oct 2016, Matt Jensen wrote:
What is your interpretation of what the 28% rule means? Is there a dan
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On Mon, 3 Oct 2016, Matt Jensen wrote:
Page 33 does imagine alternatives to Pease, not additions. The sentence:
implies that it is the actual tax benefit that is limited to 28 percent of dan |
@feenberg, thanks for confirming the interpretation of the CBO report. I think we have this feature right now. The standard deduction is incorporated: when we calculate tax without itemized deductions, then taxpayers switch to the standard deduction. Therefore the itemized deduction benefit only captures the value that the taxpayer gets from itemizing that is in excess of what they would get from taking the standard deduction. |
This is still work in progress as I am generating results to compare against TPC's estimate from their analysis of Clinton's tax plan.
In the meantime, I'll welcome anyone's feedback on the implementation.